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The old testament is often type and shadow of what is to come. God's word is eternal therefore if a principle is established in the Old testament, there must be a corresponding action in the New Testament if it is to be called a principle. If Jesus was a priest in the order of Melchizedek. How can tithing not be a New Testament principle? How can we separate that action? I wonder if the tithing of the Old Testament is type and shadow for a New Testament principle so i am asking for the full picture of what was practiced.

Also, Paul was apostle to the gentiles. He encouraged they who had no teaching in Judaism, to give to his support. He did not teach them to participate in the Jewish tithe. What was customary?

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Welcome to BHSE! We're a little different here, please review our Site Directives before asking or answering questions. Thank you! –  Tau Jan 30 at 9:37
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This question is very confusing: 1) Are you actually asking "after the Levites took their portion of the tithe, what was done with the other 90%?" The answer is fairly obvious-they only gave 10%-"the tithe". 2) Is your question inferring that the tithe is NT, based on Heb. 7:8(He-being Jesus received the tithes)? 3) Is your question about Paul preaching tithing to Gentiles? You need to focus your question before a cognitive reply can be given-Thanks! –  Tau Jan 30 at 9:56
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It seems to me the question could have been broken into more questions, but that doesn't prevent me from getting the picture that the OP is trying to make sense of conflicting teachings on tithing. Here's a website that answers frequently asked questions on tithing, which is not opinion-based but scripture-based. And here an enlightening answer to another frowned upon tithing question. –  cnaak Jan 30 at 13:21

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