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Disclaimer: I've already asked this question on Christianity SE and got a great answer. I'm asking it here to get an expert response (and because it is one of my favourite stories). If the community here thinks that is an unnecessary duplication, I won't mind if they vote to close.

The story of Jesus being anointed with perfume is recorded in all four Gospels (which itself might be a fulfillment of Jesus' words):

Is this the same event, or multiple events?

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2 Answers

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It seems that there were probably two incidents, one described in Matthew, Mark and John, and one described in Luke. The accounts in Matthew, Mark, and John all seem to be one account:

  • All take place in Bethany
  • Mark and John both mention that it is pure nard
  • Mark and John both mention the figure of 300 denarii
  • In all three, some of the disciples are indignant that the perfume wasn't sold for the poor
  • Jesus mentions that this is to prepare him for his burial
  • All take place around the time of the triumphal entry

Luke's account reads a bit differently:

  • It takes place at the home of a Pharisee, probably in Galilee
  • Chronologically, it seems to occur much earlier in Jesus' ministry than the account in the other three
  • The indignation raised about the event is by the Pharisee that the woman is a great sinner
  • Jesus uses the opportunity to tell a parable

There are differences between John and the Matthew and Mark accounts, but these aren't nearly as difficult to reconcile. However, the position, purpose, and details of the Luke account are disparate enough that many scholars consider that to be a separate story. In fact, some think that John's mention of Mary wiping Jesus' feet with her hair is a mistake and that John confused the two accounts. However, Carson points out that in both Matthew and Mark, Jesus says that the perfume was poured "on my body" and suggests that John has different theological reasons for mentioning the feet than Matthew and Mark have for mentioning the head.

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Looking at the previous chapter in John, I think the text implies it was a single event. John 11:2 says:

This Mary, whose brother Lazarus now lay sick, was the same one who poured perfume on the Lord and wiped his feet with her hair.

John doesn't say, "one of the women..." but "the... one". This implies (to me) that it was a unique event.

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Very curious to hear feedback on this answer - is my reasoning sound? – Wikis Apr 19 '12 at 20:22
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It's a good argument; however, it still leaves the work of reconciling Luke's account. Also, one could read it as John distinguishing between Mary's - i.e. this Mary, who poured perfume unlike the other Mary. – Soldarnal Apr 20 '12 at 1:11
@Soldarnal: good point there were plenty of Marys around at the time! – Wikis Apr 20 '12 at 5:29
From what I've read, Mary was a very common name at the time. – Mallioch Apr 20 '12 at 12:17
@Mallioch: Roughly 1 in 5 women in Jerusalem at that time were named Mary according to evidence of period ossuaries (i.e., burial bone boxes). – Jon Ericson♦ Apr 20 '12 at 15:41

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