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Why did Paul mean in Galatians 3:27-28 when he says that all of the Galatians were one in Christ? Does this contradict what Paul had taught elsewhere about the role of women in the ekklēsia (church)?

Galatians 3:27-28 (NASB) For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

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Welcome! Please make sure you take a tour of BH-SE. Also, please try to cite the texts you're asking about. I’ve done that here and refined your question some (thinking I got/kept the gist of it). Thanks. –  John Martin Jul 24 at 15:31
    
Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites. Please keep in mind that this is not a Christian site. Be sure to check out what makes us different from other sites that study the Bible. I've edited your question to focus it on the text. –  maj nem ɪz dæn Jul 24 at 16:00
    
Keep in mind that answers here should focus on the original context and stop short of prescribing contemporary practice. If you are looking for how this applies to Christians today, you would be best to ask on Christianity. See also Is 1 Corinthians 14:33-35 an interpolation? and What does the prohibition against women speaking in church in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 mean? –  maj nem ɪz dæn Jul 24 at 16:05
    
In fact, this question probably needs to be refocused on the meaning of the Galatians passage since we have elsewhere dealt with the Corinthians passage ad nauseam. I've made an edit to this effect. –  maj nem ɪz dæn Jul 24 at 16:14
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This question on Christianity may answer what you have in mind. –  Matt Gutting Jul 24 at 16:18

1 Answer 1

I believe you have misunderstood the context of what Paul is talking about in Gal 3:27-28. Taking the verse in context we see Paul has just been speaking of faith and the law and the verse before draws this out in that it speaks to all that believe, that they are "sons" through faith. He does not mention "daughters" but does endorse this concept and it is "understood", by the verse you are asking about. In fact he goes further to ensure it is understood there is neither distinction nations, the Gentiles are accepted by faith, the Jew and there is no distinction by class or gender. This in context is not speaking of the "role" of men or women in church, this is addressing believers "position" in Christ by faith. As always context context context should be considered. LoveInJesus

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Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites, –  Tau Jul 26 at 0:34
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Your answer was good, but you could have embellished it more with textual reference to make your case. You might want to consider some of the suggestions on what constitutes a good answer, found here(meta.hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/653/…). –  Tau Jul 26 at 0:47

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