Take the 2-minute tour ×
Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for professors, theologians, and those interested in exegetical analysis of biblical texts. It's 100% free, no registration required.

In Numbers 12:3 and Psalm 10:17 the same Hebrew word is used, but they are often translated differently. Why did the translators choose two different words? What is the difference between meek and humble?

Numbers 12:3 (KJV) (Now the man Moses was very meek, above all the men which were upon the face of the earth.)

Psalm 10:17 (KJV) LORD, thou hast heard the desire of the humble: thou wilt prepare their heart, thou wilt cause thine ear to hear:

share|improve this question

1 Answer 1

To be meek means not to fight or to resist.

Humility is not thinking less about oneself; it is thinking nothing about oneself. Humility is not lightly esteeming oneself, but not considering oneself at all. A truly humble person is truly dead to himself. If the self has not died, a person may not act unbecomingly in an outward way, but he invariably steals glory for himself inwardly!

share|improve this answer
Please remember that showing your work is a requirement on this site. Could you tell us how you arrived at these conclusions? Also, this question seems to be about the reason that the same Hebrew word has been translated differently in these two verses, which requires an analysis of the context. I have edited the question to try to make this more clear. Please consider expanding your answer. –  Susan Aug 15 at 20:25

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.