In most translations, the verse goes something like "In putting everything under him, God left nothing that is not subjected to him. Yet at present we do not see everything subject to him." (NIV 1984, emphasis mine). This would indicate that all things were subjected to Jesus. One might understand then the author to be saying that there is already aspect of Jesus' total reign which has not yet fully appeared, but we do see him already crowned with glory.
But in the 2011 update of the NIV, they have changed the object to them, which would give the interpretation of all things having been subjected at one time to the angels, but now that Jesus has come - in the present age - we no longer see things subjected to the angels, but to Jesus.
What arguments can be given to support either choice of translation?