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In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states,

Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν TR, 1550

which may be translated as,

1 God, after speaking in many parts and in many ways to the fathers by the prophets, 2 spoke to us in these last days by the Son, whom He made heir of all things, by whom He also made the «αἰῶνας».

God (i.e., the Father) is said to have made the «αἰῶνας» by means of the Son. The Greek word «αἰῶνας» is the accusative plural declension of the noun «αἰών».

The English translations generally vary in their translation of «αἰῶνας».

For example:

  • “ages” (YLT)
  • “universe” (NAB; NIV; NLT)
  • “world” (ESV; NASB1; NET2; RSV)
  • “worlds” (ASV; KJV; NKJV)

In consideration of the verb ἐποίησεν, "he created," which implies the creation of something tangible,3 how should the Greek word «αἰῶνας», noting that it is declined in the plural number, be translated and understood in this context?


Footnotes

1 Footnote: “lit. ages”
2 Footnote: Grk “the ages.” The temporal (ages) came to be used of the spatial (what exists in those time periods). See Heb 11:3 for the same usage.
3 BDAG, p. 839, on ποιέω, (1): to produce someth. material, make, manufacture, produce.

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8 Answers 8

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Background

Hebrews 1:1-4 sets out a thesis that the rest of the book will unpack by way of encouraging its Christian audience to remain faithful.

The author's constant appeal to the Hebrew Scriptures accounts for the traditional title, "The Letter to the Hebrews", although the book doesn't look much like a letter, and it never identifies its audience as Jewish Christians explicitly. Still, given the content and argument of the book, it's easy to see why this assumption is made.

These very brief comments are a necessary backdrop to the answer to the specific question which follows.

Hebrews 1:2 text

The Greek of the Textus Receptus is provided in the question (δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν), and it is a little different from the widely adopted critical text found in NA28 and UBS4:

1:2 ... δι᾽ οὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας

(Note the inverted word order, supported by 𝔓46, ℵ, A, B, and others. It really doesn't matter for this answer, though.)

The question is about αἰῶνας, or in its dictionary form, αἰών (aiōn). As the question notes, its "normal" meaning in the Greek NT (and LXX) is an "extent/period of time" (see especially under section II in that entry for biblical citations). There are some contexts and phrases which demand this meaning, but that's not the case in Hebrews 1:2, and the variety of translations is striking, especially extending to "universe, world, worlds", again as helpfully noted in the question.

What can account for this?

The Hebrew counterpart

About 380+ times in the Septuagint (pre-Christian Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures), some form of αἰών translates עוֹלָם (ʿôlām), a very natural translation since they can both mean something like "eternity" ("a very, very, etc., long time").

This is almost exclusively the meaning that ʿôlām bears in the Hebrew Bible. However, by the time of the Midrashic literature, in rabbinic usage ʿôlām had taken on the sense of "existence, world" (from Marcus Jastrow's A Dictionary of the Targumim, etc., see the entry occupying most of the left column). Although it could still bear the sense of "eternity", this newer sense of "world" or "universe" became a very common usage.

Here's one example, chosen almost at random out of thousands. Solomon Schechter draws attention to the titles for God in relation to the world,1 noting among others: "the only [unique] one of the world". This is found in Bereshit/Genesis Rabbah 21, 5 which in Hebrew reads: יחידו של עולם (yechido shal 'olam),2 where ʿôlām is translated "world". (This is also very common in Jewish prayers, so not at all unusual.)

It should be starting to come clear where this discussion is going.

Back to Hebrews 1:2

The question about how to translate and understand αἰῶνας in Hebrews 1:2, then, turns on resolving this alternative: [a] is the word being used in its more typical sense of "eternity, long time", etc., OR, [b] is the (anonymous) author aware of and using the meaning of "world" familiar to us from later rabbinic writings, Jewish liturgy, etc., which would be emerging around the time of the composition of Hebrews (so not an anachronism!)?3 We need to factor in, too, the fact that the Greek form in Heb 1:2 is a plural form: does the translation need to reflect this plurality? or is it a stereotyped expression/idiom, in which the plural doesn't really bear semantic value?

That's a fair few questions hiding under the surface, then.

(1) In favour of [a], "ages" , we have the following:

  • this is the "normal" meaning of aiōn; and
  • ... that's about it.

Possibly, if one was reluctant to assign a Jewish-Christian provenance to Hebrews, one would argue that the author would probably be unfamiliar with this nuance/meaning. To my mind, that's a case of a conclusion constraining the evidence (and that's getting it backwards!).

(2) In favour of [b], "universe, world" (this counts as one option in my understanding):

  • this is the only time, I think, that aiōn is the object the verb "to make" (ἐποίησεν) in the Septuagint or Greek New Testament: one thinks more readily of making some thing, than making "eternity";
  • there is a parallel text in Hebrews 11:3 which suggests a consistent usage:

[ASV] By faith we understand that the worlds have been framed by the word of God, so that what is seen has not been made out of things which appear.
[UBS4] Πίστει νοοῦμεν κατηρτίσθαι τοὺς αἰῶνας ῥήματι θεοῦ, εἰς τὸ μὴ ἐκ φαινομένων τὸ βλεπόμενον γεγονέναι.

Here again, αἰῶνας is the object of another verb of making (κατηρτίσθαι, "restored, furnished"), and in which "time" would not make so much sense. And as it goes on to speak of things which are "seen", this would seem to require the "visible world", rather than "the ages", or elongated time of some kind. This, to my mind, is a very weighty piece of evidence.4, 5

And singular/plural? I'm not really sure.

Summary

My own sense is that the evidence inclines towards taking αἰῶνας to mean "world/worlds". It would take more time than I have just now to sort out the singular/plural. I only note for those interested that in the Jastrow entry on עוֹלָם linked above, the latter part of it is devoted to the nuances of the plural עוֹלָמִים glossed as "worlds".6

Bonus: One interesting outcome of this almost exclusively linguistic investigation, is that it could contribute to the modern debates about the Jewish context of the book, or at least its author. This conclusion, if persuasive, would add strength to the view that the writer of Hebrews was Jewish, or was in a Jewish milieu. Carrying that trajectory on to his audience would be a tad more tenuous, but an author using Greek αἰών to bear a nuance familiar from later Hebrew עוֹלָם is suggestive, at the least.


  1. Solomon Schechter, Aspects of Rabbinic Theology (New York: Schocken, 1961), p. 26. [It is remarkable that this edition of Schechter's valuable work, first published in 1909, is on Archive.org. Grab the PDF or one of the ebook formats!]
  2. The passage in translation (see for context): Midrash Rabbah: Genesis, p. 222 (near top of page).
  3. Hebrews is typically dated to early to mid 60s AD/CE, because the destruction of the Temple is nowhere reflected in its contents, despite ample opportunity -- indeed, necessity -- had the destruction taken place before its time of writing.
  4. It is noted by many commentators; conveniently, Marcus Dods in Expositor's Greek Testament, in vol. 4, p. 250. His discussion of this issue (takes up almost the whole left column of the page linked) is worth consulting.
  5. F.F. Bruce, The Epistle to the Hebrews (rev. edn; Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1990), p. 47 n. 17, cites LXX Exodus 15:18 (κύριος βασιλεύων τὸν αἰῶνα καὶ ἐπ᾽ αἰῶνα καὶ ἔτι, "The Lord reigns over the world, for ever and ever") as one of many examples of this usage. BDAG includes this as the third meaning in its αἰών entry, and includes 1 Tim 1:17 as a further example.
  6. This plural also occurs 7x in the Hebrew Bible, but normally taken by the Classical Hebrew lexicographers as a plural of intensity (see BDB).

Postscript

This discussion also explains why the majority of English versions (I haven't checked other modern languages) adopt a "non-temporal" meaning in translating Hebrews 1:2, as a glance at the Biblegateway listing demonstrates. It lists 55 translations, but once obvious duplicates are removed (e.g., NIVUK duplicating NIV), 32 out of 48 versions (or two-thirds) convey this understanding:

  • KJ21: worlds
  • ASV: worlds
  • BRG: worlds
  • CEB: world
  • CJB: universe
  • CEV: universe
  • Darby: worlds
  • DRA: world
  • ERV: whole world
  • ESV: world
  • GNV: worlds
  • HSCB: universe
  • ICB: world
  • ISV: universe
  • Phillips: whole universe
  • KJV: worlds
  • LEB: world
  • TLB: world and everything there is
  • Mounce: material universse
  • NOG: universe
  • NABRE: universe
  • NASB: world
  • NCV: world
  • NET: world
  • NIV: universe
  • NKJV: worlds
  • NLV: world
  • NRSV: worlds
  • NTE: worlds
  • RSV: world
  • TLV: universe
  • WYC: worlds
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The question is, “Το what does the word «αἰῶνας» refer?”

The Greek word «αἰῶνας» is the accusative plural declension of the lemma «αἰών». The Greek word «αἰών» is a third-declension, masculine-gender, nasal-stem noun. BDAG defines it as,1

BDAG, p. 33, αἰών

The noun αἰών declines as follows:

Case Singular Plural
Nominative ὁ αἰών οἱ αἰῶνες
Genitive τοῦ αἰῶνος τῶν αἰώνων
Dative τῷ αἰῶνι τοῖς αἰῶσι(ν)
Accusative τὸν αἰῶνα τοὺς αἰῶνας
Vocative αἰών αἰῶνες

Some, wishing to nullify the import of this verse with its clear affirmation of the pre-existence of the Son, assert that the plural «αἰῶνας» does not refer to material “worlds,” but rather aeons or periods of time. While the Greek word «αἰών» can certainly be translated as “age” or “aeon” (i.e., a period of time),2 this translation is untenable in consideration of the verb «ἐποίησεν». Time is an artificial and intangible construct; however, the verb «ἐποίησεν» suggests the creation of something tangible.3

In the Greek Septuagint, the Greek word «αἰών» was used to translate the Hebrew word עוֹלָם (olam).4 In writing to Jews, the author of the epistle to the Hebrews was referring to the creation of the manifold worlds which the Jews believed existed according to their tradition. By “worlds,” I mean not other galaxies, but rather, the Jews divided the world we inhabit into different parts.

For example, in the Jewish commentary Tzeror ha-Mor (צרור המור), Avraham ben Yaʿakov Saba refers to הג' עולמות (“the three worlds”):5

  1. “the lower world” (העולם התחתון)
  2. “the middle world” (העולם האמצעי)
  3. “the upper world” (העולם העליון)

Tzeror ha-Mor, Folio 3b

The same three worlds (הג' עולמות) are mentioned by Yaʿakov Luzzatto in ספר כונות האגדות (Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot).6

Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot, Folio 79a

The upper world (העולם העליון) is also known as “the world of the angels” (עולם המלאכים), for it is the domain of the angels as well as God. The middle word (העולם האמצעי) is also known as “the world of the spheres” (עולם הגלגלים), which includes the moons, planets, and stars. The lower world (העולם התחתון) is also known as “the world below” (עולם השפל), which is the world we inhabit.

Sefer Kavonot ha-Agudot, Folio 90a

Accordingly, in Heb. 11:3, it is written,

3 By faith, we discern the worlds to have been prepared by the word7 of God, so that visible things did not come into existence out of things that appear.8

Γʹ Πίστει νοοῦμεν κατηρτίσθαι τοὺς αἰῶνας ῥήματι θεοῦ εἰς τὸ μὴ ἐκ φαινομένων τά βλεπόμενα γεγονέναι TR, 1550

Clearly, in Heb. 11:3, like Heb. 1:2, «τοὺς αἰῶνας» refers to the created world, as Heb. 11:3 is a reference to Gen. 1:1 in which the heaven (sky) and earth were created.

In Midrash Bereshit Rabba, it is also written, מלמד שהיה בורא עולמות ומחריבן, “This teaches us that [God] created worlds and destroyed them.”9

Franz Delitzsch concurs, thus commenting,10

Delitzsch, Commentary on the Epistle to the Hebrews, Vol. 1, p. 43, Heb. 1:2


Footnotes
1 BDAG, p. 32–33; Thayer, p. 18–20
2 ibid.
3 BDAG, p. 839, on ποιέω, (1): “to produce something material, make, manufacture, produce.”
4 Thayer, p. 19, §2
5 Folio 3a
6 Folio 79a, 90a
7 or “decree”
8 or “phenomena”
9 Parsha 3.7
10 Delitzsch, Vol. 1, p. 43
References
Arndt, William; Bauer, Walter; Danker, Frederick William. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature. 3rd ed. Chicago: U of Chicago P, 2000.

Avraham ben Yaʿakov Saba (עברהם בן יעקוב סבע). Tzeror ha-Mor (צרור המור). Venice: Cavalli, 1567.

Midrash Rabba (מדרש רבה).

Wilke, Christian Gottlob. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Being Grimm Wilke’s Clavis Novi Testamenti. Trans. Thayer, Joseph Henry. Ed. Grimm, Carl Ludwig Wilibald. Rev. ed. New York: American Book, 1889.

Yaʿakov ben Yitzchak Luzzatto (יעקב בן יצחק לוזאטו). Sefer Kavonot Ha-Agudot (ספר כונות העגדות), also known as Kaftor veFerach (כפתור ופרח). Amsterdam: Asher Anshel ben Eliʿezer Chazan, 1709.
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  • 1
    It looks like we're thinking along much the same lines. :) How sure are you that the 16th C. mystical texts you cite inform what the author of Hebrews had in mind? Jastrow's entry gives some earlier citations, which are either more simple (e.g., two worlds: this world, and the world to come), or more effusive ("three hundred and ten worlds", Sanh. 100a). Marcus Dods associates the end of Heb 1:2 (citing several others) as resonant with Philo, which is appealing chronologically, of course.
    – Dɑvïd
    Jan 30, 2014 at 8:19
  • Thanks for those replies (and the generous encouragement!). I absolutely take your point about lengthy oral tradition: seeing this comment reminded me of a story I heard Michael Stone tell (some years ago, hazy memory, details may be off here), about encountering in a small Italian village some local stories about Adam and Eve that tallied with some Jewish pseudepigraphical tradition now known only from some long lost source. To him it was clear there had been an oral tradition at work, running over centuries. | And yes, on ha-zeh/ha-ba' you're quite right. I must need more coffee. :)
    – Dɑvïd
    Jan 30, 2014 at 9:17
  • 1
    P.s. Interesting that in Tzeror ha-Mor, it's עולמות rather than עוֹלָמִים. I see both forms of the plural are cited in Jastrow - I hadn't noticed before.
    – Dɑvïd
    Jan 30, 2014 at 9:36
  • 1
    (-1) Hebrews 11 is about the faith of the ancients as they held convictions of things that were still future to them. By this faithful assurance they obtained approval from God. Faith understands that the ages have been arranged so that what is promised comes out of what we can't see. The words and the assertions have nothing to do with Genesis 1.
    – user10231
    May 29, 2016 at 18:49
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  1. In Colossians 1:16, we read: "For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities." NIV

This verse makes the obvious claim that ALL that exists ("visible and invisible") was created by God. Therefore, the claim presented by one of the responders - "...'he created'... implies the creation of something tangible," is mere supposition and not supported by Scripture. It is true that the verb used in Colossians 1:16 is "κτίζω" (Strong's 2936: create, form, shape, make), while the verb used in Hebrews 1:2 is "ποιέω" (Strong's 4160: make, manufacture, construct), but there is no logical conclusion which demands that when God made the "αἰῶνας" in Hebrew 1:2, He made something "tangible," since we are not told whether the "αἰῶνας" were made from something visible or invisible.

  1. The idea that we can rely on Rabbinical "scholarship" to interpret Scripture, especially Apostle Paul's writings (it is assumed that the Letter to the Hebrews was authored by Paul), is dubious at best. This would be akin to arguing that one of Jesus' disciples could have received a clear answer about The Messiah by questioning the Sanhedrin. Sorry, it won't do.

  2. The only way to determine the meaning of "αἰῶνας" in Hebrews 1:2, or anywhere else in Scripture for that matter, is by comparing the use of that word and its derivatives in various passages in Scripture. There many places where the word is used - one author above mentions "380+" - but for this matter two examples will suffice.

3.1 In 1Timothy 1:9, the phrase "πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων" is translated as follows:

  • "before the world began" KJV
  • "before times eternal" ASV
  • "before the beginning of time" NIV
  • "from all eternity" NASB
  • "before the world was" NMB
  • "before he made the world" WE
  • "before worldly times" WYC
  • "before the ages began" NRSV
  • "ages ago" RSV
  • "before all time and ages" NTE
  • "before the times of the ages"
  • "eons and eons ago (before time itself existed)" VOICE
  • "before Yamim HaOlam" OJB

What a confusing mess!!!

I think that all can agree that whatever took place in "πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων" had the following sequence:

  • "πρὸ" (Strong's 4253: Preposition meaning "before")
  • "χρόνων" (Strong's 5550: Noun, Masculine meaning "times")
  • "αἰωνίων" (Strong's 165: Noun, Masculine, meaning "an age, a cycle of time")

NOTE: I am not a grammarian, but I can detect, intuitively, that the word "αἰωνίων" is the adjectival form of the noun "αἰών." So, if the adjective "αἰωνίων" is a derivative of the noun "αἰών," whose meaning is "an age, a cycle of time," then it follows logically that the adjective "αἰωνίων" must also refer to TIME rather than SPACE. In plain English, a "daily newpaper" is one that is issued every day; a "weekly magazine" is one that is produced every week; a "monthly newsletter" is one that is produced every month; a "centennial event" takes place once every 100 years, a "millennial kingdom" lasts 1000 years, and "eonian times" are times which pertain to the eons. They pertain to the "eons" and not an "eon" since God created "eons" in Hebrews 1:2 and not just one "eon." Indeed, the adjectival form or the word English word "eon" - a cognate of the Greek "αἰών" - is "eonian" - the English cognate of the Greek "αἰωνίων."

It is ironic that of the 58 translations at "Bible Gateway," from which the examples above were taken, and which include the KJV and others which make reference to SPACE (i.e., "world"), not TIME (i.e., "eon"), or absurdities such as "before times eternal" in the ASV, incomprehensible terms such as "before Yamim HaOlam" in the OJB, the one translation which makes most sense grammatically - "before times eonian" - is conspicuously absent.

The text in 1Timothy 1:9 makes it clear, beyond refutation, that the subject in the passage has to do with TIME and not SPACE.

3.2 In Ephesians 2:2, the phrase "τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ κόσμου τούτου" is translated as follows:

  • "the course of this world" KJV
  • "the ways of this world" NIV
  • "age of this world" YLT

In addition to the erroneous ways in which the word "αἰῶνα" appears in most English translations (YLT and others like it have it somewhat correct), what is lost on most readers of English Bibles is the fact that both "αἰῶνα" and "κόσμου" are used in the same expression, which conclusively proves that these words have such different meanings from each other that Paul, the author of the letter the Ephesians, deemed it necessary to use both words in the same sentence to express his thoughts. Of course, to English readers today the expression "the eon of this world" has a strange sound, but that is only because their ears have been dulled by incorrect translations. Eon ("αἰῶνα"), which is a unit of time, and world ("κόσμου"), which is a unit of space are connected in the sense that for each corresponding "world" there is a corresponding "eon."

NOTE: Technically speaking, the word "κόσμου" does not even mean "world" but "system" - i.e, an order of things.

I will be happy to respond personally to anyone who is interested. Please contact Gabe at [email protected].

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  • tI have no idea what "the era of the prophets" or "the era of the son" is, let alone contrasting one against the other. I do not even know what this has to do with Hebrews 1:2 or the question I asked. The purpose of my question was to determine what the author of Hebrews meant when he wrote that God created the "αἰῶνας." If you agree that He created the "eons" - the English cognate of "αἰῶνας," then I would invite you to tell me what the "eons" are and what is their purpose.
    – user9754
    Oct 11, 2017 at 6:30
  • I don't mind a rating of "-1" but it would be useful to know what is particularly scripturally incorrect about my answer.
    – user9754
    Oct 14, 2017 at 18:03
  • In fact, κόσμος is a word with several meanings. See, for example, Liddell & Scott. Nov 1, 2017 at 18:33
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αἰών (aiōn) and κόσμος (kosmos)

in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages (YLT)
Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds (KJV)
ἐπ’ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ἡμῖν ἐν υἱῷ, ὃν ἔθηκεν κληρονόμον πάντων, δι’ οὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας

The Lexicon lists four primary uses of αἰών and identifies the third for Hebrews 1:2 :1

a long period of time, without ref. to beginning or end
a segment of time as a particular unit of history, age
the world as a spatial concept, the world
the Aeon as a person, the Aeon

There are two arguments against "worlds" as the best meaning in this context:

  1. αἰῶνας is plural and a spatial concept of plural worlds is unnatural without much Biblical basis. As a result many translations which use this meaning render it as singular or replace it with "universe" neither of which accurately reflects the actual text.
  2. κόσμος (kosmos) is the better choice to convey "world" (singular) and is used by the writer in that sense (cf. 4:3, 9:26, 10:5, 11:7, 11:38)

In fact, the letter shows this distinction between the singular κόσμου and the plural of αἰών:

else must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once at the end of the ages hath he been manifested to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. (9:26 ASV)

ἐπεὶ ἔδει αὐτὸν πολλάκις παθεῖν ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου νυνὶ δὲ ἅπαξ ἐπὶ συντελείᾳ τῶν αἰώνων εἰς ἀθέτησιν ἁμαρτίας διὰ τῆς θυσίας αὐτοῦ πεφανέρωται.

The Lexicon which identifies the plural of αἰών as "the world" in 1:2, says the use in 9:26 is as "a segment of time as a particular unit of history" because: there is only one world. Consequently events on the world can be described as happening after different ages. For example, the Second Temple was destroyed after the ages of Noah and of the Patriarch's, and so forth.

History Redefined
Under the influence of the Roman Church, history was formally redefined by identifying when an event took place. The system which became known as Anno Domini or simply AD and before Christ or BC, changed when events took place. Prior to Jesus Christ various means were used to locate when an event took place. For example:

Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar... (Luke 3:1)

After Jesus, events may be recorded relative to the "Christ event." What is misleading in the specific numerical calculation, is the failure to state the actual historical αἰών an event stands relative to Jesus Christ. For example, the Second Temple was not destroyed in the first year of the reign of Vespasian, or in the year 3831 on the Jewish calendar, or even in 70AD. It was destroyed in the αἰών immediately after Jesus was raised from the dead, that is, the Apostolic αἰών.

"Ages" or "eras" is the better translation of αἰῶνας as this conveys the event in an historical "era" relative to Jesus Christ in the one unique world in which He appeared. For example, "AD" and "BC" are two general αἰῶνας, one after the Word became flesh and one before.

The same concept is present in the letter:

So when he came into the world, he said, “Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me. (Hebrews 10:5 NET)

What "He" said was first said in the αἰών before He came into the world, and again in the αἰών when He was in the world, and, to the extent He is responsible for the content of the letter, was written a second time in the αἰών He sent the Holy Spirit (cf. John 14:16-17) and is now read in the αἰών the Holy Spirit testifies about Jesus to the world (cf. John 16:7-11). Thus there are four αἰῶνας, three of which are clearly made by Christ:

αἰών 1 the "OT" prophecy
αἰών 2 the words spoke by Jesus
αἰών 3 the Apostolic remembrance from the Spirit sent by Jesus
αἰών 4 the post-Apostolic Spirit who testifies to the world about Jesus

One only needs to believe the "OT" prophecy was "the Word" before becoming flesh to see there are four distinct αἰῶνας each of which was made by Jesus Christ.

Creation
The verb ποιέω, "to do or to make" is the primary reason for understanding the meaning of αἰῶνας as "world(s)." However, since the letter begins by speaking of creation of the physical world (vv. 1:3, 10), it is the creation narrative in Genesis which best explains the choice of ἐποίησεν to describe how the αἰῶνας came to be:

In the beginning God made the heaven and the earth.
ἐν ἀρχῇ ἐποίησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν οὐρανὸν καὶ τὴν γῆν

There was a preexisting αἰών (singular) before the beginning of what was made. Then there was a beginning of αἰῶνας (plural) which can be defined relative to Christ, because once the Word becomes flesh, all history is understood relative to Christ. Therefore, the use of ἐποίησεν in Hebrews understands the same word in Genesis as in the beginning of the ages which were made, and, consequently does not impinge upon the preexistence of either the Son or God in the αἰών prior to "in the beginning."

God has spoken by The Son. The Christ is now the heir of all things, including the manner by which history may be described. This simply adds to His role in creation: not only did Jesus create all things, ages or eras may now be defined by when they took place relative to Christ.


  1. Fredrick William Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, The University Chicago Press, 2000, pp. 32-33
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The law and the prophets were until John:

New American Standard Bible Luke 16:16 "The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John; since that time the gospel of the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it."

The arrival of the king ended the age of the law and the prophets and inaugurated the kingdom age. These are the ages in view:

YLT Hebrews 1: 1 In many parts, and many ways, God of old having spoken to the fathers in the prophets, 2 in these last days [of the prophets] did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all [these] things, through whom also He did make [delineate] the ages;

The idea that ποιέω has to do only with making material things ignores the broad semantic domain of ποιέω. This is just a portion of BDAG's entry, which is huge:

...② to undertake or do someth. that brings about an event, state, or condition, do, cause, bring about, accomplish, prepare, etc...

Matthew 24 graphically describes the end of the temple-centric age:

YLT Mat 24:3  And when he is sitting on the mount of the Olives, the disciples came near to him by himself, saying, 'Tell us, when shall these be? and what is the sign of thy presence, and of the full end of the age?'

The basic design of the NT is that everything that is in the OT, whether explicit messianic predictions or types, is harnessed in the NT as evidence that Jesus was the Messiah. By the end of the NT, all prophecy is considered completely fulfilled with no new prophecies made to be fulfilled. The NT ends with the descent of the New Jerusalem aka the Kingdom of God aka the City on a Hill, the Body of Christ, the Israel of God, the Bride of Christ, the New Man, the New Creation, Etc. and the New Age has begun with people pressing into it.

UPDATE

Due to an internal nagging that there was more to the story, and in keeping with my hermeneutic principle that everything in the NT is applying the OT to the first century, I decided to try to locate the OT basis for the assertion, "through whom he made the AIWNWN". I couldn't find anything in the OT. I turned to the commentaries, which pointed me to what I think is clearly the background of this passage:

Wisdom of Solomon 13:9 For if they were able to know so much, that they could aim at the world [TON AIWNA, which is singular]; how did they not sooner find out the Lord thereof?

Paul seems to allude to this chapter to refer to "the things that are made":

[Rom 1:20 KJV] (20) For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, [even] his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

Compare that to:

[Wisdom of Solomon 13 RSV]: 1 For all people who were ignorant of God were foolish by nature; and they were unable from the good things that are seen to know the one who exists, nor did they recognize the artisan while paying heed to his works; 2 but they supposed that either fire or wind or swift air, or the circle of the stars, or turbulent water, or the luminaries of heaven were the gods that rule the world. 3 If through delight in the beauty of these things people assumed them to be gods, let them know how much better than these is their Lord, for the author of beauty created them. 4 And if people [Gk: "you"] were amazed at their power and working, let them perceive from them how much more powerful is the one who formed them. 5 For from the greatness and beauty of created things comes a corresponding perception of their Creator. 6 Yet these people are little to be blamed, for perhaps they go astray while seeking God and desiring to find him. 7 For while they live among his works, they keep searching, and they trust in what they see, because the things that are seen are beautiful. 8 Yet again, not even they are to be excused; 9 for if they had the power to know so much that they could investigate the world, how did they fail to find sooner the Lord of these things?

By using the plural, the author seems to be alluding to this passage with the idea that by Jesus, God not only made all the things that have been made in this world but also in the world above (angels, et al) and any other worlds.

This would then be parallel to John's statement:

[Jhn 1:3 KJV] (3) All things [πάντα] were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Hebrews speaks of the things that are made again:

[Heb 12:27 KJV] (27) And this [word], Yet once more, signifieth the removing of those things that are shaken, as of things that are made [Gk: πεποιημένων], that those things which cannot be shaken may remain.

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Or look it with the view of somebody that studied Physics.

3 dimensions : Width , Height, Length.

4 dimension : Time

4+ dimensions: Αιώνες which is equivalent with time in plural.

So Christ created even the dimensions beyond the fourth dimension (that is why He can enter with a physical body inside a closed building that is defined by 3 dimensions)

Also we for example we have access to 3 dimensions so we can be as we wish inside and outside the 2 dimension space of an ant. We can be even concurently behind and in front of it using only 2 fingers of our 3 dimensional hand.

This is simple physics.

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    – agarza
    Sep 4, 2022 at 22:08
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Αἰῶνας – translated as “worlds” offers three possible definitions all of which may be applicable here. It ca refer to the physical universe, the un-broken ages of eternity, or to the full scope of human history.

  1. That he is the Creator of the physical universe we are told in a number of places. This seems to be an illusion to Jeremiah 10:12-16 saying, “He upholds all things by the word of his power,” or “by his powerful word.”

In verse 16, the Maker of all things is the Jehovah of Hosts. In Revelation 3:14 Jesus calls himself the ἀρχή – the beginning or the active cause of creation. In John 1:3, He is the Maker of all things. In Colossians 1:16, he not only created all things that exist but is also the one who holds all things together. “By him all things consist.”

  1. He is also the Creator of the unbroken ages of eternity, Isaiah 9:6. It is quite an interesting notion to think of eternity as a created thing. Eternity exists only because God exists. It exists to accommodate God who exists and operates even beyond the scope of eternity. That is indeed an intriguing concept.

  2. He is also the Creator or human history. He appointed the ages of the patriarchs, the age of the prophets, and the age of the New Covenant. He has directed the course of human history from one period to the next to bring about his will and redemptive purposes and in the end, as we are told in verse 11, he will bring it all to a close. Thus, the Son is the Creator of everything this word implies.

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  • You've confused the Creator with the one who is declared 'HEIR' to all that was made - the son Jesus. What crazy system is there where the maker of all things becomes the heir to all things? Jesus didn't exist in the beginning. When the logos became flesh, Jesus began - the fulfillment of various prophecies and promises.
    – Steve
    Nov 19, 2020 at 1:17
  • You have no idea what you are talking about. I don't think I'll even bother to address this nonsense.
    – oldhermit
    Nov 19, 2020 at 21:18
  • As you wish. You are parroting tradition which uses the bible when convenient, and makes up other ‘truth’ as required. Hopefully you will see the deception eventually. How ironic, you calling the bible nonsense!
    – Steve
    Nov 19, 2020 at 21:33
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The entire history of the universe (which includes heaven and hell) is divided into universe-MOMENTS, and is actualized moment-by-moment by the infinite-matrix Trinity.

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